Did Jesus say he is God or the son of God?

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Did Jesus imply that he was God and/or God’s son? 




There are a few verses that are interpreted as Jesus implying that he is God or the exclusive son of God.  Why did Jesus call God “Father”?  Did his using this title to address God imply an exclusive and literal father-son relationship?

I will address the key verses and from these key ones – God willing, you will see the other verses in their proper context.



1.         John 10:27-38 “My sheep hear my voice and I know them; they follow me and I give them eternal life.  They shall never perish and no one will ever steal them from me.  What the Father has given me is stronger than everything and no one can snatch it from the Father’s hand.  I and the Father are one. 
The Jews then picked up stones to throw at him; so Jesus said” I have openly done many good works among you which the Father gave me to do.  For which of these do you stone me?
The Jews answered “We are not stoning you for doing a good work but for insulting God; you are only a man and you make yourself God.”
Then Jesus replied “Is this not written in your law: I said you are gods?  So those who believed this word of God were called gods and the scripture is always true.*(Author's note: please read this highlighted underlined part of the verse again...as this is the CRUCIAL clarifying point) Then what should be said of the one anointed and sent into the world by the Father?  Am I insulting God when I say: “I am the son of God?”
If I am not doing the works of my Father, do not believe me.  But if I do them, even if you have no faith in me, believe me because of the works I do, and know that the Father is in me and I in the Father.”

This scripture is loaded with many statements that have been misconstrued given the deeply etched doctrines of trinity and divinity.  Let’s look at that scripture in its full context as this is easily misunderstood. Let’s first take a step back and have a look at the past scripture that Jesus was referring to when he said “Is it not written in your law…” The verse he was referring to is in the book of Psalms 82 written by Prophet David.


    a.)    Psalms 82:1 & 6-7 “God presides in the divine council; He gives judgment among the gods…’You are gods,’ I said, ‘you are all sons of the Most High; but you will die like other men; you will all fall like any ruler”


Now looking at both scriptures simultaneously – from John 10 and Psalms 82 it can easily be understood as to what Jesus said.  He was not contradicting all his other statements of sub ordinance to God Almighty – rather he was shedding light on a very important truth the most don’t perceive till this very day (specifically the Jews who still don’t believe that Jesus is the Messiah, the Christ, and the Prophet of God).

When Jesus said “I and the Father are one” he didn’t mean one in essence – as in he (Jesus) was God – he meant they are one in purpose.  This point is made quite clear when I look at John10:35 where Jesus says “So those who received the word of God were called gods and the scripture is always true.

Jesus words are affirmed in The Holy Koran from Surah 33:7-8 where it states that prophets have a covenant with God as custodians of the truth because they ‘received the word of God”.  They were “entrusted” with the word of God and thus became custodians of the word – and were called “gods” because they “represented God”.  They had a message to pass.  There were so many prophets that had come and gone throughout time and we only know of those that are told to us.  Each of these prophets were custodians of the truth and had received the word and were deemed as God’s representatives on earth.

    b.)    John 10:35 “So those who received the word of God were called gods and the scripture is always true”



Jesus was a custodian of the word/truth/message of Almighty God.  SO Jesus and all other prophets who RECEIVED the word of God were called gods. Jesus explains that the CHOSEN people to whom the word of God was given (the custodians of the truth, i.e. prophets, messengers etc.) are as gods or sons of God because they are God’s REPRESENTATIVES here on earth.  Jesus referred to the scripture in Psalms to clarify what he meant so that they would not misinterpret his statement as attesting to divinity or exclusive son-ship. Jesus further clarified his statement in the following verse...


    c)    John 10:36 “Then what should be said of the one anointed and sent into the world by the Father?  Am I insulting God when I say: “I am the son of God?”
This statement by Jesus is supported in Psalms 82:6 “…you are all sons of the Most High;”

This does not mean Jesus is the literal and EXCLUSIVE son of God or that he is God Almighty. This was a teaching that was NEVER endorsed by Jesus or God himself (i.e. Old Testament teachings from previous prophets).  So what does it mean “…you are all sons of the Most High”?
 A representative of God (i.e. Ambassador, prophet, messenger, servant etc.) represents God and brings His message to humanity.  It does not mean one becomes God Almighty because he represents God.  This is illogical.  The creation can never become like its creator in essence.  The created will always be in need of its creator in order to exist/be sustained etc. Jesus needs God in order to exist.  God does not need Jesus in order to exist. THIS IS FACT.  Jesus is one with God in purpose - not in essence

To further put this expression in its proper perspective – let’s have a look at another verse which uses the same expression.


d.)        Exodus 7:1 “And the Lord said to Moses, “See, I have made you like God to Pharaoh, and your brother Aaron shall be your prophet.” 

Moses is likened unto a god to Pharaoh because he represents God and is bringing His message to Pharaoh.  Does this verse mean that Moses was literally Pharaoh’s God?  Of course it doesn’t – keeping in line with what Jesus said when he referred to Psalms 82 in clarifying his statement when he said that he was one with God in terms of purpose.

It is known in all the monotheistic religions that Prophet Moses had a speaking disorder and he asked God’s permission for his brother Aaron to assist him in his mission to rescue the children of Israel from Egypt. 

Here Jesus expounds on the same concept of his being god or the son of god – as in he was God’s representative or mouth piece here on earth.  Moses was certainly not Pharaoh’s God!!  The richness of the Semitic languages is incapacitated by the one dimensional level of the English language.  The misunderstandings are understandable as many don’t have the prerequisite of understanding the background of the context, the language and the culture wherein Jesus lived.

2.         John 8:58-59 “Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!” At this, they picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus hid himself, slipping away from the temple grounds.

Before I explain these verses – let’s look at the context to grasp what Jesus meant.  Let’s go back a few verses and start at verse 54 of the same chapter in John 8.

    a.)    John 8:54 “Jesus answered, "If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing; it is my Father who glorifies me, of whom you say, 'He is our God';






John 8:54 is yet ANOTHER proof Jesus is not God, nor is he claiming to be deity, because he clearly states, “…it is my Father who glorifies me, of whom you {Jews} say, 'He is our God.' Jesus says it very plainly, “MY Father…” is the One you Jews say, “He is OUR God.” The word “OUR” is inclusive of the speaker, Jesus. He did not say “Your” - as in “He is Your God” which connotes exclusiveness on part of the speaker. So Jesus was including himself in identifying the one he called Father as the One and only God. No mistake about it.

Now let’s go back a little bit further to the Old Testament.
           
    b.)    Exodus 3:14 “And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.”  

Many Christians parallel Exodus 3:14 with the phrase used by Jesus in John 8:58 “...Before Abraham was born, I am” Many Trinitarians claim this to be a confirmation of Jesus divinity and in fact if you see some translations of the Bible they actually capitalize the word “I am” to “I Am” to make it appear as a parallel to the name of God in Exodus. There is a simple explanation to this.  It’s a translation misunderstanding from Greek to English.

i.          The Greek word used for the name of God in Exodus for “I AM” is:  “’eh·yeh”
ii.         The Greek word used for what Jesus said when he said “I am” is: “egō eimi”

    c.)    John 15:5 “I am the vine” The Greek word used for “I am” is:             “egō eimi”

You can prove this with any Greek Bible that also has transliterations.  I can refer you to a website that has the bible in both Hebrew and Greek and transliterations of both languages:  http://interlinearbible.org

These are two very different words and two very different meanings.  This was not a statement of divinity from Jesus at all. So why did the Jews pick up stones to hit Jesus if he was NOT making a statement of equality to God?  It was because Jesus was saying he was higher in stature than Abraham.  This requires a whole explanation but the point I was making is – Jesus was not alluding that he was God Almighty, Creator of heaven and earth.  Should you want an exegesis on this particular verse – I can provide but for the purpose in keeping in line with the subject I am glazing over this and moving on to the next verse in question.

3.         John 14:6 “Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. If you really know me, you will know my Father as well. From now on, you do know him and have seen him.”

With all the explanations that I have given in the above verses with regards to Jesus representing God here on earth during his ministry – this verse should be self-explanatory.  For example: An ambassador from Canada living in China represents Canada. When the Canadian ambassador makes public statements regarding a particular issue – this is seen by China as Canada's stance.  The Ambassador is not actually the Country Canada – he is a spokesperson; whatever he says – he is speaking for Canada. He is the FACE of Canada - AS was Jesus for God.

When Jesus said I am the Way the Truth and the Life.  He didn't mean – “I, Jesus the person” – rather I Jesus the MESSAGE; what he represented, the message he embodied, the example he set - this is the Way, the Truth and the Life.  If we follow the WAY(s) of Jesus – it is THE WAY, follow his teachings and words for they are THE TRUTH and in doing this – we will attain eternal LIFE, THE true LIFE.  Here is where Jesus talks about God in reference to himself - please click HERE

If you followed any teachings that CONTRADICT Jesus example – this is a false religion with no authority from God.  Did Jesus eat Pork?  Did Jesus worship on any day? Was Jesus circumcised? Did Jesus keep the laws God?  Does it make sense that Jesus would live a life submitting to the laws of God yet teach a message of lawlessness (i.e. contradict his own example with his words)?  This topic of whether Jesus taught us to trivialize or break laws is found here on this link:  Did Jesus teach us to not keep the law?

CONCLUSION:




Jesus is not God's only begotten son, nor is he God incarnate or man-god, god-man.  Jesus own words don't affirm this teaching.  Jesus is a messenger sent by God to the lost tribe of Israel.  



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